1.A  user  reports  that  USB  devices  intermittently  stop  responding  when  connected  to  his
PowerBook, but work properly when connected to another Macintosh. Which step would be MOST
LIKELY to help you isolate the source of the problem?
A.Launch Activity Viewer and watch to see if any device drivers stop responding.
B.Disconnect all non-USB devices to reduce power consumption on his computer.
C.Restart his computer in verbose mode to see if the USB kernel extension is loading.
D.Unplug all his USB devices, then reconnect and test following a split-half search method.
Correct:D 
2.Your Macintosh has been exhibiting system problems, so you need to perform troubleshooting
and maintenance. Which  two  tasks can you execute  from another Macintosh after booting your
system in FireWire Target Disk Mode? (Choose TWO.)
A.Run Repair Disk from Disk Utility.
B.Run Repair Disk Permissions from Disk Utility.
C.Partition drive (non-destructive) from Disk Utility.
D.Run Secure Erase from Disk Utility to defragment the drive.
E.Enable System Administrator (root) login in NetInfo Manager.
Correct:A B 
3.Which two utilities can display information about a wide range of system components? (Choose
TWO.).
A.Console
B.Setup Assistant
C.System Profiler
D.Internet Connect
E.Network Diagnostics
Correct:A C 
4.Which three are dynamic service discovery protocols supported by Mac OS X v10.4? (Choose
THREE.)
A.Active Directory
B.AppleTalk
C.Bonjour
D.NetInfo
E.LDAP
F.SMB
Correct:B C F 
5.Authorization verifies ________.
A.a file's creator and type
B.a user's name and password
C.a computer's membership in a computer list
D.a resource availability to a given user account
Correct:D 
6.How  can  you  configure  Mac  OS  X  to  get  authentication  information  from  an  LDAP  server?
(Choose TWO.)
A.Enter the IP address of an LDAP server in the LDAP pane of Network preferences.
B.Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X to get LDAP information from a DNS server.
C.Use the default configuration, which allows Mac OS X to use a DHCP-supplied LDAP server.
D.Use Sharing preferences to configure Mac OS X to use an Active Directory server as an LDAP server.
E.Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X with the IP address, type, and search base of a specific
LDAP server.
Correct:C E 
7.Fred wants to upload PDF files to a printing company FTP server. He uses Connect to Server in
Mac OS X v10.4 to access the FTP server, and he is able to download files from the server, but he
is not able to upload his files. How can Fred resolve this issue?
A.Use an FTP client other than Connect to Server.
B.Enable FTP write access in Finder preferences.
C.Enable the FTP Proxy in the Proxies pane of Network preferences.
D.Start FTP Access in the Services pane of Sharing preferences on his computer.
Correct:A 
8.Network  users  often  have multiple  passwords,a  distinct  password  for  each  network  service
they access. Which is NOT a valid way to simplify this situation for users in Mac OS X v10.4?
A.Set up a Kerberos environment on the network.
B.Have users store their login information for different servers in Keychain.
C.Set up a directory service to make user and password information available to all computers.
D.Have users enable the Single Sign-on option in the Authentication pane of Network preferences.
Correct:D 
9.In Mac OS X v10.4, you CANNOT turn off the ________ service discovery protocol.
A.SLP
B.SMB
C.Bonjour
D.AppleTalk
Correct:C 
10.You are having issues sending and receiving mail from the Mail application in Mac OS X. Which
is a valid troubleshooting step?
A.Use Connection Doctor in Mail to identify Mail connection problems.
B.Use the Email pane in Network Utility to verify that mail servers are operational.
C.Click the Reset Server Settings button in Mail preferences and re-enter the mail server addresses.
D.Use Network Utility from another computer to perform a port scan on your computer and verify that the POP and SMTP ports are open.
Correct:A ITrenzheng(IT認證)提供專業的認證信息資料,分享最新的考試材料及內容提要,為幫助更多的人通過IT認證.技朮學習,技朮指導.IT認證資訊分享

1. Which utility can gather information about a wide range of system components? 
A. Setup Assistant 
B. System Profiler 
C. Keychain Access 
D. Internet Connect 
E. Network Diagnostics 
Answer: B 
2.What happens when Mac OS X 10.4's Safe Relaunch feature sets aside an application's preference
file? 
A. It is moved to the Trash 
B. It is renamed application.plist.old 
C. It is renamed application.plist.saved 
D. It is moved to the ~/Library/Recovered Preferences/ folder 
E. It is moved to the ~/Library/Preferences/Recovered Preferences/ folder 
Answer: C 
3. The Console utility ________. 
A. displays log files 
B. enables root access 
C. invokes the command line 
D. controls monitor configuration 
Answer: A 
4.What is the best way to resolve most application/frameworks mismatches in Mac OS X 10.4? 
A. Create a new user 
B. Repair permissions
C. Run Software Update 
D. Reinstall the application 
E. Archive and install Mac OS X 
Answer: C 
5. On a Mac OS X v10.4 computer you see the message shown in the exhibit. What does this message
indicate? 
A. A kernel panic has occurred. 
B. An application has stopped responding. 
C. You have pressed the power button while the computer was powered up. 
D. You have connected a bus-powered device that requires more power than is available. 
Answer: A ITrenzheng(IT認證)提供專業的認證信息資料,分享最新的考試材料及內容提要,為幫助更多的人通過IT認證.技朮學習,技朮指導.IT認證資訊分享

1. How do you achieve full system redundancy in a precision air conditioning system? 
A. install multiple air conditioning systems in an N+1 configuration 
B. install a properly-sized DX air cooled unit with chilled water back-up 
C. install a properly-sized air conditioning unit with redundant compressors 
D. install Building System cooling (comfort cooling) with an air conditioning unit in standby 
Answer: A 
2. What are two reasons why a fully rated UPS (output kW = output kVA) is more compatible with today's IT loads than an 80%-rated UPS (output kW = output kVA at a 0.8 power factor)? (Choose two.) 
A. 80%-rated UPSs are more efficient. 
B. Today's IT loads are power-factor corrected. 
C. Fully-rated UPSs have superior output voltage control. 
D. Fully-rated UPSs make it less likely to undersize the UPS. 
E. Today's IT loads lock up when powered by an 80%-rated UPS. 
Answer: BD 
3. A site requires redundant power feeds to single-corded servers. What is a possible redundant
configuration? 
A. two single-module UPSs feeding one rack-mount Automatic Transfer Switch and one outlet strip per
rack 
B. two single-module UPSs each feeding dual-panel distribution boards, which in turn feed two outlet
strips per rack 
C. two single-module UPSs each feeding two outlet strips per rack; plugging half the servers in one strip and the other half in another strip 
D. two single-module UPSs each fed from separately derived utility sources; sources that come from one of two independent utility substations 
Answer: A 
4. If a company requests that its UPS output power be distributed to the racks through an isolation
transformer, what are they trying to do? 
A. decrease the cable size to the load
B. increase the efficiency of the system 
C. increase availability throughout the data center 
D. prevent electrical noise from locking up the servers 
Answer: D 
5. What is a common application for 2-post racks? 
A. telecom 
B. server room 
C. remote office 
D. IT data center 
Answer: A 
6. What is the most accurate way to determine the capacity of an existing standby generator? 
A. ask the facility manager 
B. calculate 30% over the UPS capacity 
C. look at the generator name plate in the genset room 
D. calculate capacity based on the load the generator is powering 
Answer: C 
7. Click the Calculator button. A medium-size data center has been retrofitted and the new IT equipment
requires 39kW at a power factor 0.90. The existing UPS system is 40kVA. Which two actions should you
take? (Choose two.) 
A. keep the actual UPS system: 40kVA means 40kW 
B. replace the diesel generator to cover the extra load 
C. replace the actual UPS system with a minimum 45kVA 
D. check the entire UPS installation to make sure it is able to support the new load 
Answer: CD 
8. An IT manager wants one hour of UPS runtime on a Voice over IP (VoIP) solution that will be located in a small wiring closet. To get the full hour of runtime and continuous operation, what else must be in
place?
A. The closet must have sufficient cooling for that period. 
B. Shutdown software should be loaded on the VoIP server. 
C. The UPS must be oversized in wattage to provide this runtime. 
D. The equipment must be installed in a full enclosure for proper security. 
Answer: A 
9. Which two products are appropriate for an IT network wiring closet? (Choose two.) 
A. single-phase UPS 
B. 800 amp DC rectifier 
C. 4-post open frame rack 
D. 10kVA three-phase UPS 
E. 15-ton computer room air conditioner 
Answer: AC 
10. You have specified that a 1000 VA rack-mount UPS solution be added to your client's existing data
center. Considering the size of the UPS, which service product is appropriate? 
A. Load Bank 
B. Thermography 
C. Extended Warranty 
D. Preventive Maintenance 
Answer: C ITrenzheng(IT認證)提供專業的認證信息資料,分享最新的考試材料及內容提要,為幫助更多的人通過IT認證.技朮學習,技朮指導.IT認證資訊分享

1. Click the Exhibit button.  
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B 
2. Click the Exhibit button.  
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A 
3. Click the Exhibit button.
 
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return 
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A 
4. What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A 
5. What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A 
6. What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure 
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D 
7. What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D 
8. The rear of an  IT equipment rack  is  fitted with a duct  that  is connected to a drop ceiling plenum;  the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit.   The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor.   The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D 
9. Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A 
10. Which  type  of  humidification  system  uses  quartz  lamps  extended  over  an  open  pool  of  water  to
release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A 
11. What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D 
12. How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D ITrenzheng(IT認證)提供專業的認證信息資料,分享最新的考試材料及內容提要,為幫助更多的人通過IT認證.技朮學習,技朮指導.IT認證資訊分享

1. Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes? A. A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she reaches the age of 21. B. Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8 months without charging a fee. C. The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis. D. A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years ago. Answer: D 2.The following are facts concerning a decedent's estate: An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included in this estate is correct? Taxable estate $1,700,000 Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200,000 Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50,000 Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100,000 The tentative tax base of this estate is A. $1,700,000 B. $1,750,000 C. $1,850,000 D. $1,900,000 Answer: B A. An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is includible at the date of death value. B. Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date. C. Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of death if the executor so elects. D. Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of death. Answer:A 4. A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to his death, the father was offered $1,200,000 for his farm because of its possible use as a shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his father's estate at its current use value. Additional facts are: 1.Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000. 2.Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $8,000. 3.The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Bank is 8 percent. For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use value for the farm of A. $500,000 B. $600,000 C. $700,000 D. $820,000 Answer: B 5. Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in common? A. Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of which is real property. B. Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will. C. Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property used in the partnership business. D. Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one of the brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property. Answer: B 6. Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in a community-property state is correct? A. All property owned by the couple is community property. B. Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state to a common-law state. C. Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property. D. Income earned by one spouse becomes community property. Answer: D 7. Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct? A. Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity. B. It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries. C. Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee. D. It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries. Answer: B 8. On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct? A. The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during lifetime and at death. B. The value of Betsy and John's GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at death rather than during lifetime. C. The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition gifts for the grandchildren. D. Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren. Answer: D [url=http://www.itrenzheng.hk/ ]ITrenzheng(IT認證)[/url]提供專業的認證信息資料,分享最新的考試材料及內容提要,為幫助更多的人通過IT認證.技朮學習,技朮指導.IT認證資訊分享

1. Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
 
A. XX Transport Label, YY   VC Label, ZZ   Control Word
B. XX   VC Label, YY   Transport Label, ZZ   Control Word
C. XX   VC Label, YY   Control Word, ZZ   Transport Label
D. XX   Control Word, YY   VC Label, ZZ   Transport Label
E. XX   Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ   VC Label
Answer: A 
2.  The  diagram  above  shows  the  MPLS  packet  format  for  transporting  L2  services  over  an  MPLS
transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
 
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C 
3. Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by
which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation. The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C 
4.  The  diagram  above  shows  the  MPLS  packet  format  for  transporting  L2  services  over  an  MPLS
transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
 
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B 
5. Martini  encapsulation  typically makes  use  of  the  control word  in which  of  the  following  situations?
(Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: BE

1. How many databases does a Link State routing protocol use?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C 
2. In an IP datagram, which field identifies the receiving application
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header
B. The port field of the transport layer header
C. The protocol field of the network layer header
D. The port field of the network layer address
Answer: B 
3. A static route is created using the command "static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 3.3.3.1". What command
could be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 3.3.3.1
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 3.3.3.1
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Answer: C 
4. A static  route  is  created  using  the  command  "static-route  2.3.4.0/24  next-hop  1.2.3.4". What  is  the
correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 2.3.4.1
B. traceroute 2.3.4.0/24 next-hop 1.2.3.4
C. traceroute next-hop 1.2.3.4
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR
Answer: A 
5. Which one of the commands below will create a static route to network 2.3.4.0/24 on the Alcatel-Lucent
7750 SR router?
A. static route 2.3.4.0 255.255.255.0 next hop 3.4.5.6
B. static-route next-hop 3.4.5.6 2.3.4.0/24
C. static route 2.3.4.0/24 next hop 3.4.5.6
D. static-route 2.3.4.0/24 next-hop 3.4.5.6
Answer: D 
6. A default route for a client is also known as the:
A. Default path
B. Default gateway
C. Gateway path
D. Proxy ARP
Answer: B
7. What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B 
8. What command could be used to verify proper configuration of a static route in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router?
A. show route-table
B. show router routing-table
C. show router route-table
D. show static
Answer: C 
9. What address is used when RIPv2 uses multicast to send its updates?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
E. RIPv2 does not have support for multicast
Answer: C 
10. What is the metric and maximum routable value for RIP?
A. Hop count and 16
B. Hop count and 15
C. Link cost and 15
D. Link cost and 16
Answer: B

1.Which of the following are Link State protocols?
A. BGP 
B. RIP 
C. OSPF 
D. IS-IS 
Answer: C, D  
2.ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer. 
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol 
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol 
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference 
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference 
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination 
Answer: D  
3.Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A.  From  the  router's  route  table,  select  the  best  routes  to  be  installed  in  the  FIB  for
forwarding 
data. 
B. Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in
the 
route table. 
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route 
table. 
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active
route 
in the route table. 
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to
the 
router's neighbors. 
Answer: D  
4.What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer. 
A. Network address, mask and metric 
B. Network address and metric 
C. Prefix and mask 
D. prefix, next-hop and metric 
E. prefix and next-hop 
Answer: A  
5.Choose the most accurate statement about the connections between eBGP peers. 
A. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other. 
B. eBGP peers are always directly connected to each other. 
C. eBGP peers are never directly connected to each other. 
D. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other, unless they are in the same 
autonomous system. 
E. eBGP peers are usually not directly connected to each other, additional configuration is 
required if they are. 
Answer: A   
6.What message is issued by a neighbor as a response to a valid Open?
A. Keepalive 
B. Open 
C. Exchange 
D. Notification 
E. Ping 
Answer: A  
7.Which of the following is not exchanged in a BGP Open message?
A. BGP version number 
B. The local AS number 
C. The hold time 
D. The keepalive timer 
E. The Router ID 
Answer: D  
8.The state of one BGP neighbor shows Established, which of the following is false?
A. The router has established a complete session with that neighbor. 
B. BGP can exchange update, notification and keepalive messages with that neighbor 
C. If the keepalive timer expires, the local system sends a keepalive message and restarts
its 
keepalive timer 
D. If the local system receives a notification message, it changes its state to OpenConfirm 
E. Established is the operational state 
Answer: D  
9.Which of the following is a Well Known Mandatory attribute?
A. Origin Code 
B. Local Preference 
C. MED 
D. AS Path 
E. (a) and (d) 
F. (b) and (d) 
Answer: E

1. In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: ABC 
2. Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured
with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for
exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E 
3. Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: ABE 
4. What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: ABD 
5. Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: AE 
6. What  are  the  two  primary  problems  the  service  provider must   consider when  providing  traditional
Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: BD 
7. When a Service Provider offers VPRN services  to its customers, which of  the following functions are
expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B.  Distributing  the  customer  routing  information  between  sitesDistributing  the  customer?  routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: BCE 
8. In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address
space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D

1. Which  technical  development  allowed  the  deployment  of  IP  protocol  features  at  any  point  in  the
network? 
A. The invention of ATM 
B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM 
C. The usage of IP in the home network 
D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA 
Answer: B  
2. The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in: 
A. The customer home 
B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI) 
C. The provider Central Office (CO) 
D. The video headend 
Answer: C  
3. The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be: 
A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM 
B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM 
C. Neither (a) or (b) 
D. Both (a) and (b) 
Answer: D  
4. Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server? 
A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable 
B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses 
C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server 
D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode 
E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode 
Answer: D  
5. What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2. 
A. NAT support 
B. Support Routed and bridged mode 
C. Multicast (IGMP) support 
D. Support IP packet filtering 
E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums 
Answer: AC  
6. The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following? 
A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) 
B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) 
C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) 
D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) 
Answer: A  The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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7. Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best
answer. 
A. P.C. 
B. TV with STB 
C. Gaming console 
D. LAN switch 
E. Any Ethernet connected device 
Answer: E  
8. True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services? 
A. True 
B. False 
Answer: A  
9. Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone? 
A. Home 
B. Broadband Access 
C. Broadband Aggregation 
D. Broadband Metro 
E. IP Services Edge 
Answer: D  
10. Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG
contain: 
A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero 
B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero 
C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG 
D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones 
E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application 
Answer: E

1. Which  technical  development  allowed  the  deployment  of  IP  protocol  features  at  any  point  in  the
network? 
A. The invention of ATM 
B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM 
C. The usage of IP in the home network 
D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA 
Answer: B  
2. The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in: 
A. The customer home 
B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI) 
C. The provider Central Office (CO) 
D. The video headend 
Answer: C  
3. The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be: 
A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM 
B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM 
C. Neither (a) or (b) 
D. Both (a) and (b) 
Answer: D  
4. Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server? 
A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable 
B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses 
C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server 
D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode 
E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode 
Answer: D  
5. What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2. 
A. NAT support 
B. Support Routed and bridged mode 
C. Multicast (IGMP) support 
D. Support IP packet filtering 
E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums 
Answer: AC  
6. The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following? 
A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) 
B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) 
C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) 
D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) 
Answer: A  The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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7. Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best
answer. 
A. P.C. 
B. TV with STB 
C. Gaming console 
D. LAN switch 
E. Any Ethernet connected device 
Answer: E  
8. True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services? 
A. True 
B. False 
Answer: A  
9. Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone? 
A. Home 
B. Broadband Access 
C. Broadband Aggregation 
D. Broadband Metro 
E. IP Services Edge 
Answer: D  
10. Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG
contain: 
A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero 
B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero 
C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG 
D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones 
E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application 
Answer: E

1. Which factor is a primary cause of IPhyper-aggregation?
A. IP routing protocols donot always select the best route to a destination 
B. IP routingprotocols always select multiple routes toa destination
C. IP routingprotocols donot make use all available network attributes to select a path 
D. Improper network design results in limited network path redundancy
Answer: C 
2. Inspecting the MPLS header in the received packet and exchanging it for a new MPLS header is the
function of which device? 
A. iLER 
B. LER 
C. LSR 
D. PE E. eLER 
Answer: C 
3. Choose  the answer  that best completes  the  following statement. The device at  the beginning of an
LSPisreferred to as the ____ while the device at the end of an LSP is referred to as the ____.
A. PE, P 
B. LER, LSR 
C. LSR, LER
D. iLER, eLER
E. eLER, iLER
F. P, PE
Answer: D 
4.  Which  of  the  following  statements  are  true  regarding  the  roles  of  devices  in  an  MPLS  domain?
Choose2answers. 
A. An LER is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets 
B. An LSR is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets 
C. An  LSR  is  located  at  the  boundary  of  the  provider  domain  and may  forward  labeled  or  unlabeled
packets
D. An  LER  is  located  at  the  boundary  of  the  provider  domain  and may  forward  labeled  or  unlabeled
packets
Answer: BD 
5.  Receiving  labeled  packets  from  the  MPLS  domain,  removing  the  MPLS  header  and
forwardingunlabeledpackets outside the MPLS domain is the function of which device? A. LER 
B. LSR 
C. PE 
D. iLER 
E. eLER 
Answer: E 
6. What are the functionsof the control plane in a MPLS router? Choose 2 answers.  The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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A. Route exchange 
B. Label swapping
C. MPLS neighbor establishment 
D. Label signaling 
E. Routing lookups 
Answer: AD 
7. Which of the following factors are driving the evolution of the MPLS protocol and services? Choose 2
answers. 
A. Customers demand for differentiated IP services 
B. MPLS usage has been mandatedby the IETF 
C. Providers want toimprove service availability and reliability
D. It is an easier technologyto configure and manage than IP alone 
Answer: AC 
8. Which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB 
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB 
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB 
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB 
Answer: BC 
9. What is the function of the MPLS label assigned to a packet?
A. It identifies the FEC 
B. It specifies the packets header length
C. Itidentifies the origin ofthepacket
D. It specifiesthe type of data contained in the packet 
Answer: A 
10.What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits? 
A. Each implementation may use them as they see fit 
B. They are used tocarry the Ethertype value 
C. They are used tocarry theTTLvalue 
D. They are used to map QoS classification 
E. They are used tocarry fragmentation flags 
Answer: D

1. True of False: A proper end-to-end QoS solution is becoming more of an issue even as more bandwidth
is being made available to today's bandwidth-intensive, interactive multimedia applications. 
A. True 
B. False 
Answer: A  
2. Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS? 
A. delay, jitter, packet loss 
B. latency, FIFO, WRED 
C. signal degradation, attenuation, line loss 
D. SNR, radial CODEC inversion, latency 
E. Inverse Queue Depletion, delay, packet loss 
Answer: A  
3. Which of the following are Ethernet SAP encapsulation types? Choose all that apply. 
A. Null 
B. Dot1Q 
C. Q-in-Q 
D. IPCP 
E. BCP-Null 
F. BCPdot1.q 
G. Frame Relay 
Answer: ABC  
4. Which of the following are not considered a differentiator/classifier of customer traffic at layer 2 or 3 of
the OSI model? Choose all that apply. 
A. DSCP 
B. 802.1p 
C. IP Precedence 
D. TCP/UDP Port numbers 
E. HTML version 
Answer: DE  
5. Which of the following statements are true regarding the DSCP bits? Choose 3 answers. 
A. The precedence level bits define 4 Assured Forwarding Classes 
B. The three least significant bits of the DSCP bits specify the drop probability 
C. The 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP 
D. To convert DSCP to IP Precedence the three most significant bits are matched 
E. DSCP provides for 64 precedence levels with 3 drop probabilities 
Answer: ABD  
6. Pick from the following list the 3 major components of the QoS features on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. 
A. virtual inflow classification 
B. real-time QoS shaping  The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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C. traffic classification 
D. 802.1q p-bit rate-limiting 
E. buffer memory management 
F. traffic scheduling 
Answer: CEF  
7. The IOM is responsible for which of the tasks listed below? Choose 3 answers. 
A. local processing of critical control plane functions 
B. IPSec VPN hardware accelerated encryption 
C. queuing, scheduling, and buffer management 
D. IP/MPLS/MAC forwarding lookup 
E. Layer 2 / Layer 3 encapsulation 
Answer: CDE  
8. Which of the following statement is true with regards to Q-in-Q on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? 
A. Q-in-Q defines a mechanism for encapsulating queued DSCP traffic at the provider edge 
B. Q-in-Q is a new protocol that supercedes 802.1p priority-bit mapping in a QoS-aware network 
C. The use of either  the  inner or outer 802.1p bits  in  the 802.1q  frames  for QoS classification can be
configured on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR 
D. Q-in-Q is a protocol which re-encapsulates trunked p-bits in an outer label that is mapped into the EXP
bits in an MPLS backbone 
E. none of the above 
Answer: C  
9. Which  of  the  following  are  not  categories  of  forwarding  classes  on  the  Alcatel-Lucent  7750  SR?
Choose 3 answers. 
A. Real-time 
B. Assured 
C. Non-conforming 
D. High Priority 
E. Expedited 
Answer: ACE  
10. Which of the following are Trusted boundaries by default? Choose 2 answers. 
A. An IES SAP 
B. A VPLS SAP 
C. A network port 
D. A VPRN SAP 
E. An access port 
Answer: CD

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F.01-01-5e-22-28-01
Answer:E 
7.Which  two of  the  following addresses should not be used  in a multicast network at  the same
time?
A.233.44.12.35
B.234.45.12.35
C.235.46.12.35
D.236.174.12.35
E.237.171.12.35
Answer:C D 
8.Which MAC address will the IP multicast address 239.33.42.107 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-a1-2a-6b
B.01-00-5e-21-2a-6b
C.01-00-5e-21-2c-6c
D.00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E.00-01-5e-21-2a-6b
F.01-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
Answer:B 
9.What is the range of addresses allocated for SSM?:
A.239.0.0.0/8
B.233.x.y.0/24
C.224.0.0.0/24
D.232.0.0.0/8
Answer:D 
10.How many bits of the IP multicast address are copied directly to the multicast MAC address?
A.27
B.5
C.28
D.9
E.23
Answer:E1.The use of PIM as a multicast routing protocol provides for which one of the following services?
A.Authentication
B.Guaranteed Delivery
C.Device Security
D.Preventing packet forwarding loops
E.Preventing Denial of Service attacks
Answer:D 
2.An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to which  layer of
the OSI stack?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
E.Layer 7
Answer:C 
3.Choose the answer that best completes the statement: An end station on an Ethernet network
receiving an IP multicast packet will:
A.Determine at Layer 1 if it is interested in the frame
B.Determine at Layer 2 if it is interested in the frame
C.Determine at Layer 2 after reading the protocol ID field if it is interested in the frame
D.Determine at Layer 3 if it is interested in the frame
E.Determine at Layer 7 if it is interested in the frame
Answer:B 
4.Which of the following are characteristics of the one to many model of multicast data delivery?
(Choose two)
A.Receivers are generally unknown by the source
B.Well suited for applications in which the receivers provide feedback to each other and the source
C.There is a single data flow, from the source to the receivers
D.All devices are potentially capable of generating multicast data
E.Receivers are generally known by each other since any receiver may be a source
Answer:A C 
5.The OUI field of the MAC address for IP multicast frames is:
A.00-01-5e
B.01-01-53
C.01-01-5e
D.01-00-5e
E.01-00-53
Answer:D 
6.Which MAC address will multicast address 224.128.0.1 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-80-00-01
B.01-00-5e-22-41-40
C.01-00-5e-22-28-01
D.00-01-5e-80-00-01
E.01-00-5e-00-00-01

1.Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS? 
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN 
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs  that are member of  the same service  instance  to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN 
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit 
Answer: A  
2.The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements? 
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible 
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible 
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address 
D.Only (a) and (b) are true 
E.All of the above 
Answer: E  
3.Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false? 
A.A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service 
B.A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain 
C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path 
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services 
E.The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP 
Answer: C  
4.True or False? Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels? 
A.True 
B.False 
Answer: A  
5.Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS? 
A.Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label switched path)
tunnels 
B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation 
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain 
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports 
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service 
F.All of the above 
Answer: F  
6.Which of the following statements is false? 
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service 
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs 
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits 
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
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connected 
via a bridged LAN 
Answer: C  
7.Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?  
A.It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2 
B.The devices cannot communicate based on  the configuration  in  the diagram so  there will be no mac
address association 
C.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1 
D.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4 
Answer: C  
8.Which  of  the  following  functions must  a  PE  router  support  when  participating  in  a  VPLS  network?
Choose all that apply. 
A.MAC learning 
B.Packet replication 
C.Proxy ARP 
D.Packet forwarding 
E.Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with that VPLS 
Answer: A B D E